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I have a house from 30 yrs ago from previous divorce in my name only . Have never lived there together and have rented out for past 8 yrs since marriage and he has never contributed to it or paid any bills . I receive rent into my personal account and transfer an amount each month into joint account with husband to pay current mortgage and bills. He is now saying it won’t be considered non marital asset . In contrast he owns a property landlord business consisting of 18 flats also acquired pre marriage from 30 yrs ago and he pays wages from the rental income into joint account too. Would his business be considered non marital too if my house was? V v confused by reading conflicting info online
Replies (1)
Hi Sarah,
Thank you for getting in touch with amicable.
There are several factors the court considers when reviewing a consent order (financial order), such as length of marriage, children and contributions made. How you treat your properties will depend on your wider financial situation and agreement. Here’s a blog which can give you more information about divorcing with multiple properties.
I suggest you book a free 15-minute advice consultation to understand your options and a practical way forward.
Best wishes, Tatiana