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Can someone help me please as I am going in unrepresented now due to lawyer costs (the other party has always been unrepresented)
Main issue is:
We married in 1990. Divorced in 2012. No financial order was made as none of us had money between us, he has always been claiming benefits and not working. I have worked to upkeep the rent and our children who are now adults.
I received a unsecured loan from family in 2015 in which I bought a property few months later whilst still divorced.
I remarried same person (I know big mistake) in 2016 just under a year after loan and lived in the house for 2 years till he was removed by non-molestation and occupation order.
We are now going through ancillary relief before the divorce finalises and he is wanting 50% of my property. He has not contributed to the upkeep of it whatsoever whilst we were married/living in it.
I was told by different lawyers that the starting point is 50% and he may get it as he is disabled, on benefits and is old. I am unable to work now to my health and have reached retirement age.
My whole case is that the loan I received to purchase the house fully was granted and purchased whilst I was divorced, the marriage was under 3 years and he did not contribute to the upkeep of house (bills all came out of my bank)
question: Does anybody know under what law/article/act I can find information about divorce finances if there is a loan included? I tried to check on gov but can't find a specific act/article/law I can reference in the court hearing..
Also, under what act does it mention 50/50 split?