I am splitting from my wife after 6 years of marriage. We have a 16-year old stepdaughter and 2 6-year old twins. the twins will live with me going forward. We now live at separate addresses - myself in my parents' spare room with the younger 2 children, and my wife in the former marital home. I am currently still paying for the mortgage on the marital home. The younger children go to my wife most weekends, so they spend about 6 nights per month with her. My wife doesn't work.
My wife has not worked during the 10-year relationship. The relationship can be summarised as:
* 3 years, I supported my wife and stepdaughter financially. She didn't work.
* 4 years, my wife was pregnant/ a SAHM
* 2 years: younger children went to school, but my wife still didn't work. The last 6 months we have been separated and I have still been supporting my wife financially, while having the younger children living with me.
Throughout the relationship I have been the sole breadwinner and financially supported both my wife and stepdaughter. I brought in assets from prior to the marriage and these were used to buy the marital home.
I know that homemaking contributions are taken into account as equal to breadwinner, but on the face of a marriage of such unequal contributions, will I still have to give her 50% of assets? For example, before having children together, there were 3 years of total financial dependence on me. For me it seems grossly unfair if I have to give my wife 50% of my net worth, about half of which predates meeting her. Would a departure from 50-50 be considered under the circumstances?
My wife has no qualifications and I'm quite highly qualified so can earn a fair amount more than her.
The 50-50 % equal split is what the UK law says (I am assuming you are in England or Wales). However, this does not mean that this is what the Court orders. Every District Judge comes into a court hearing with 50/50 in mind. It is for either party to say that the split should be different and to prove why.