My husband and I are currently going through a divorce where I am representing myself. Our absolute could have been applied for from the 22nd November but he has not done this yet. We were married for 4 years with two biological children (one severly disabled) and three children from a previous relationship of mine. We bought a home in 2015 in his sole name. We are now negotiating a consent order. He remortgaged the home before we divorced and sat on the money. He now wants me to agree to 58% house. Obviously the equity is very small after only purchasing 3 years ago and him remortgaging. He has a hefty pension, wage and a fair amount of savings. I agreed to 58% of the home but would also like 50% of what he recieved when he remortgaged it. Am i being unreasonable?
Hi Sheni, thanks for getting in touch and sorry to hear that you're going through a difficult time. It is very difficult to say if you are being unreasonable as we would need to understand the full financial picture in order to give you the correct answer. The starting point for any financial split is 50/50 of the entire pot. However, there are lots of variables involved if this percentage moves in one person's favour including; length of the marriage, need, time out of work to bring up any children etc. Please call us so we can give you a more personalized answer.