My husband and I are currently going through a divorce where I am representing myself. Our absolute could have been applied for from the 22nd November but he has not done this yet. We were married for 4 years with two biological children (one severly disabled) and three children from a previous relationship of mine. We bought a home in 2015 in his sole name. We are now negotiating a consent order. He remortgaged the home before we divorced and sat on the money. He now wants me to agree to 58% house. Obviously the equity is very small after only purchasing 3 years ago and him remortgaging. He has a hefty pension, wage and a fair amount of savings. I agreed to 58% of the home but would also like 50% of what he recieved when he remortgaged it. Am i being unreasonable?